Was Jeremiah written in Aramaic?

This verse is written in Aramaic or Chaldean, the language which was commonly spoken in Babylonia in 6th century BC; other verses in the Book of Jeremiah are written in Hebrew language. Biblical scholars Michael Coogan et al. state that it is “a gloss in Aramaic”.

What is the Aramaic translation of the Hebrew Bible?

Targum
Targum, (Aramaic: “Translation,” or “Interpretation”), any of several translations of the Hebrew Bible or portions of it into the Aramaic language. The word originally indicated a translation of the Old Testament in any language but later came to refer specifically to an Aramaic translation.

What language did Jeremiah speak?

Hebrew
Jeremiah, Hebrew Yirmeyahu, Latin Vulgate Jeremias, (born probably after 650 bce, Anathoth, Judah—died c. 570 bce, Egypt), Hebrew prophet, reformer, and author of a biblical book that bears his name.

What verse in Jeremiah is in Aramaic?

Jeremiah 10:11 is the only verse in the book of Jeremiah written in Aramaic and not in Hebrew.

Who Wrote Book of Jeremiah?

Baruch ben Neriah
According to Jewish tradition, Jeremiah authored the Book of Jeremiah, the Books of Kings and the Book of Lamentations, with the assistance and under the editorship of Baruch ben Neriah, his scribe and disciple.

Why does Jeremiah 10 have an Aramaic verse?

Jeremiah 10:11 Generally two reasons are found among commentators regarding why Jeremiah contains an Aramaic verse. First, as the translators of the New English Translation observe, many scholars believe that verse 11 is a gloss inserted by a post-exilic scribe.

What is the meaning of the V in Jeremiah 10?

The v. is not Hebrew, but Aramaic. Either it is a marginal note, subsequently introduced into the text, where it interrupts the connexion of Jeremiah 10:10; Jeremiah 10:12, or it was designed by the prophet to supply the exiles with a form of answer when solicited to share in idolatrous practices.

Did Jeremiah interrupt a Hebrew discourse by interpolating Aramaic?

Lange argues, “Jeremiah would certainly not have interrupted a Hebrew discourse by a Chaldee [Aramaic] interpolation, when he elsewhere never uses this language, not even in the letter to the exiles” in chapter 23.

What language did Jeremiah speak in the Old Testament?

The other possible explanation is that Aramaic was the language of diplomacy and Jeremiah made a statement that the Israelites should say to their Babylonian captors when they ended up in future exile.