Is 1 raised to infinity indeterminate?

While at first this problem may not look like a 1 to infinity problem, it actually is because when you try to take a limit, you get 1 to infinity. Because you’re dealing with limits, this 1 to infinity is an indeterminate form, as we discussed a moment ago, meaning it’s an answer that you can’t use.

When we multiply a number by 1 we get the number itself?

According to the multiplicative identity property of 1, any number multiplied by 1, gives the same result as the number itself. It is also called the Identity property of multiplication, because the identity of the number remains the same.

Why is the product of 0 and ∞ indeterminate?

Zero is so small that it makes everyone vanish, but infinite is so huge that it makes everyone infinite after multiplication. In particular, infinity is the same thing as “1 over 0”, so “zero times infinity” is the same thing as “zero over zero”, which is an indeterminate form.

Why is infinity 1 indeterminate?

Basically we use two things, that ex and ln x are inverse functions of each other, and that they are continuous functions. If g(x) is a continuous function then g(limx→a f(x)) = limx→a g(f(x)). )x = e. This is of the indeterminate form 1∞.

Why 1 Power infinity is not defined?

This means that as x approaches infinity, the function becomes closer and closer to the asymptote. Since the asymptote is a line that a curve gets infinitely close to, but never reaches, the function can never reach a real value at x=infinity. Hence, we say it is undefined.

How do you explain multiplying by 1?

The rule for multiplying any number by 1 is that the number remains the same size. When multiplying a given number by one, the answer is simply the given number.

When we multiply an integer by 1 the result is always 1 True or false If false write the correct statement?

Step-by-step explanation: When we multiply any integer by 1, the result will be the number itself like -5 * 1 = -5 , 6*1 = 6 etc.